Does $ liminf $ distribute?

I know the property for sets $ A_n, B_n $
$$
limsup_ {n to infty} (A_n cup B_n) = limsup_ {n to infty} (A_n) cup limsup_ {n to infty} (B_n)
$$

is holding.

I'm curious if that also holds that
$$
liminf_ {n to infty} (A_n cup B_n) = liminf_ {n to infty} (A_n) cup liminf_ {n to infty} (B_n)?
$$