This question might be a little complicated, so I’ve made a reference chart to refer to throughout.
- Country A – Have Citizenship
- Country B – Have Citizenship
C – Tourist, currently staying
- Country D – Intended destination as a tourist. No current visa, but normally issues visas upon arrival. However due to Covid-19, is currently not issuing these visas upon arrival at this time
for people from countries A or B.
My goal is to enter Country D when it resumes visa upon arrival issuance for citizens of either country A or B. Due to the coronavirus pandemic however country D is no longer issuing these visas upon arrival and is also restricting travel from counties A & B (but not country C with the appropriate visa, which is immaterial to me since I’m just a tourist in C anyway so couldn’t avail of this).
Let’s say I have dual nationality/passports from countries A and B, but am living as a tourist currently in country C. Ideally I’d like to travel to country D (my fiance lives there) as a tourist directly from country C , but country D is currently banning tourists from both countries A and B due to the coronavirus pandemic.
Let’s say in the foreseeable future that country D allows tourist travel and visa upon arrival issuance for country A but not from country B (still banned). This would mean I have citizenship of both a banned and allowed country for the purposes of being issued a tourist visa upon arrival in country D. Would it be advisable to travel directly from country C to country D using my passport from country A (not banned) at the immigration for country D when I arrive there? For relevance, let’s assume I have previously entered this country with my passport from Country B (banned) so they may well have a record of me being of that banned nationality anyway.
In this hypothetical scenario, should I also declare to the immigration at country D that I’m a citizen of the banned country B upon arrival, but will be using my passport from country A which is not banned, and that I have in fact come directly from country C (which let’s assume isn’t banned either)?
I’d just like to confirm whether this would be an appropriate hypothetical course of action, particularly for a dual national living as a tourist in yet another country (C), that ultimately wants to reside as a tourist in yet another country (D), in the times of this pandemic where some countries may re-open tourist entry to certain countries (such as country A) but not others (such as country B).
Would there also be any potential issue coming from country C instead of country A directly on my journey to country D, provided country C isn’t banned? Ie: Would it be likely for the immigration to care that I was merely a tourist in C where I came from, provided I can still produce a passport from country A?
I realize the answer may depend upon the actual country that country D is, but I’m just curious in terms of “generally” whether this course of action would be appropriate.
Thank you, I hope this question is understandable.